5: Regulations

Introduction

Pilot Certificate Privileges and Limitations

Pilot Ratings

Medical Certificates and BasicMed

Required Certificates

Recent Flight Experience

High-Performance Airplanes

Glider Towing

Change of Address

Pilot-in-Command Responsibility

Preflight Action

Seatbelts

Alcohol and Drugs

Right-of-Way Rules

Parachutes

Deviation from Air Traffic Control Instructions

Minimum Safe Altitudes

VFR Weather Minimums

VFR Cruising Altitudes

Transponder and ADS-B Requirements

Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT)

Categories of Aircraft

Formation Flight and Dropping Objects

Speed Limits

Airworthiness

Maintenance and Inspections

ADs, ACs, and NOTAMs

Accident Reporting Requirements

Introduction

Although FAR is used as the acronym for Federal Aviation Regulations, and found throughout the regulations themselves and hundreds of other publications, the FAA is now actively discouraging its use. FAR also means Federal Acquisition Regulations. To eliminate any possible confusion, the FAA cites the federal aviation regulations with reference to Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations. For example, “FAR Part 91.3” is referenced as “14 CFR Part 91 Section 3.”

While Federal Aviation Regulations are many and varied, some are of particular interest to all pilots.

14 CFR Part 1 contains definitions and abbreviations of many terms commonly used in aviation. For example, the term “night” means “the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight, as published in the American Air Almanac, converted to local time” and is used for logging night time.

14 CFR Part 61, entitled “Certification: Pilots, Flight Instructors, and Ground Instructors,” prescribes the requirements for issuing pilot and flight instructor certificates and ratings, the conditions of issue, and the privileges and limitations of those certificates and ratings.

14 CFR Part 91, entitled “General Operating and Flight Rules,” describes rules governing the operation of aircraft (with certain exceptions) within the United States.

The National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) has established rules and requirements for notification and reporting of aircraft accidents and incidents. These are contained in NTSB Part 830.

Pilot Certificate Privileges and Limitations

The types of pilot certificates and the attendant privileges are contained in 14 CFR Part 61 and are briefly stated as follows:

Pilot Ratings

When a pilot certificate is issued, it lists the category, class, and type (if appropriate) of aircraft in which the certificate holder is qualified. See Figure 5-1.

Figure 5-1. Airman certificate

The term category means a broad classification of aircraft, such as airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and lighter-than-air. The term class means a classification within a category having similar operating characteristics, such as single-engine, multiengine, land, water, helicopter, and balloon. The term type means a specific make and basic model of aircraft, such as Cessna 172 or Gulfstream IV.

A type rating must be held by the pilot-in-command of a large aircraft. “Large aircraft” means aircraft of more than 12,500 pounds maximum certificated takeoff weight.

All turbojet-powered airplanes, regardless of weight, require the PIC to have a type rating.

In addition to the category, class, and type ratings, if a pilot wishes to fly IFR, an instrument rating is required.

Medical Certificates and BasicMed

Student pilot, recreational pilot, and private pilot operations (other than glider and balloon) require a Third Class Medical Certificate, or, if operating without a medical certificate, compliance with Part 68, referred to as BasicMed.

BasicMed privileges apply to persons exercising student, recreational, and private pilot privileges when acting as pilot-in-command (PIC). It also applies to persons exercising flight instructor privileges when acting as PIC. You cannot use BasicMed privileges to fly as a safety pilot, except when acting as PIC. Pilots operating under BasicMed must hold a current and valid U.S. driver’s license and comply with all medical requirements or restrictions associated with that license. Pilots operating under BasicMed regulations must also complete the comprehensive medical examination checklist (CMEC) in collaboration with a physical examination by a state-licensed physician. The physical and CMEC must be completed within the last 48 calendar months. The pilot must also complete an online medical education course every 24 calendar months. When operating under BasicMed, pilots are limited to:

  1. Fly with no more than six passengers.
  2. Fly an aircraft (excluding transport category helicopters) with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of no more than 12,500 pounds.
  3. Fly an aircraft that is authorized to carry no more than seven occupants (pilot + passengers).
  4. Flights within the United States, at an indicated airspeed of 250 knots or less and at an altitude at or below 18,000 feet MSL.
  5. Prohibited from flying for compensation or hire.

If operating beyond these limitations, pilots must obtain an FAA Medical Certificate. A Third Class Medical Certificate expires at the end of:

  1. The 60th month after the month of the date of the examination shown on the certificate if the person has not reached his or her 40th birthday on or before the date of examination; or
  2. The 24th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the certificate if the person has reached his or her 40th birthday on or before the date of the examination.

The holder of a Second Class Medical Certificate may exercise commercial pilot privileges during the first 12 calendar months, but the certificate is valid only for private pilot privileges during the following (12 or 48) calendar months, depending on the applicant’s age.

The holder of a First Class Medical Certificate may exercise airline transport pilot privileges during the first 6 or 12 calendar months, commercial privileges during the following 6 or 0 calendar months, and private pilot privileges during the following 12 or 48 calendar months, depending on the applicant’s age. To state another way, a medical certificate may last 6 months to a year with first-class privileges, 12 months (from the date of the examination) with second-class privileges, and 2 or 5 years with third-class privileges—depending on whether the applicant is above or below 40 years of age.

Each type of medical certificate is valid through the last day of the month (of the month it expires), regardless of the day the physical examination was given.

Required Certificates

When acting as pilot-in-command, a pilot must have a current pilot license, a photo ID, and a current medical certificate in their physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft. Glider and balloon pilots do not need a medical certificate. A recreational pilot acting as PIC must have a current logbook endorsement in their personal possession within flights 50 NM from the departure airport.

A pilot must present their pilot license and medical certificate for inspection upon request of any FAA, NTSB, or federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.

Recent Flight Experience

No person may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft unless within the preceding 24 calendar months they have accomplished a flight review. This review is given in an aircraft for which the pilot is rated by an appropriately rated instructor or other person designated by the FAA. A logbook entry will document satisfactory accomplishment of this requirement. If the pilot takes a proficiency check (as for a certificate or a new rating), it counts for the flight review.

No person may act as PIC of an aircraft carrying passengers unless, within the preceding 90 days, they have made three takeoffs and three landings as the sole manipulator of the controls in an aircraft of the same category, class, and, if a type rating is required, in the same type. Touch and go landings are acceptable unless the passengers are to be carried in a tailwheel airplane, in which case the landing must be to a full stop, and they must be in a tailwheel airplane.

If passengers are to be carried during the period from 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise, the PIC must have made, within the preceding 90 days, at least three takeoffs and three landings during that period. The landings must have been to a full stop and in the same category and class of aircraft to be used.

High-Performance Airplanes

No person holding a Private or Commercial Pilot Certificate may act as pilot-in-command of an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower unless they have received instruction from an authorized flight instructor who has certified in the pilot’s log book that they are competent to pilot a high-performance airplane.

Glider Towing

A private pilot may not act as PIC of an aircraft towing a glider unless they have logged at least 100 hours of pilot flight time in the aircraft category, class, and type (if required), or 200 hours total pilot time. Within the preceding 24 months, the pilot must have made at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot, or made three flights as PIC of a towed glider.

Change of Address

If a pilot changes their permanent mailing address without notifying the FAA Airmen’s Certification Branch in writing within 30 days, they may not exercise the privileges of their certificate.

Pilot-in-Command Responsibility

The pilot-in-command of an aircraft is directly responsible, and is the final authority, for the safety and operation of that aircraft. Should an emergency require immediate action, the PIC may deviate from Part 91 to the extent necessary in the interest of safety. Upon request, a written report of any deviation from the rules must be sent to the Administrator.

If a pilot receives a clearance that would cause a deviation from a rule, they should query the controller and request that the clearance be amended.

Preflight Action

Before beginning a flight, the pilot-in-command is required to become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. This information must include the following:

  1. Runway lengths; and
  2. Takeoff and landing information for airports of intended use, including aircraft performance data.

If the flight will not be in the vicinity of the departure airport, the pilot must also consider the following:

  1. Weather reports and forecasts;
  2. Fuel requirements (enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing, and at normal cruising speed, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes if during the day, or for at least 45 minutes at night when in an airplane); and
  3. Alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

Seatbelts

All required flight crewmembers must remain in their seats with seatbelts secured during the entire flight unless absent in connection with duties or physiological needs. When shoulder harnesses are installed they must be used during takeoffs and landings.

Prior to takeoff, the PIC must ensure that each person on board has been briefed on the use of seatbelts. In addition, the PIC must ensure that the passengers are notified to fasten their seatbelts during taxi, takeoffs, and landings. A child under two years of age may be held by an adult who is occupying a seat or berth.

Alcohol and Drugs

No person may act as a crewmember on an aircraft under the following conditions:

  1. Within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage;
  2. While under the influence of alcohol (.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood); and
  3. While using any drug that affects their faculties in any way contrary to safety.

Except in an emergency, no pilot of an aircraft may allow a person who appears to be intoxicated or under the influence of drugs (except a medical patient under proper care) to be carried in that aircraft.

A conviction for the violation of any law relating to drugs or alcohol is grounds for: (1) Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under Part 61 for a period of up to 1 year after the date of final conviction; or (2) suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under Part 61.

Pilots shall provide a written report of each alcohol- or drug-related motor vehicle action to the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.

Right-of-Way Rules

When weather conditions permit, vigilance must be maintained so as to see and avoid other aircraft.

An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over all other air traffic. When aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude (except head-on, or nearly so), the aircraft on the other’s right has the right-of-way. See Figure 5-2.

Figure 5-2. Aircraft on converging courses: Aircraft on the right has right-of-way—aircraft on the left must yield.

If the aircraft are of different categories, the following applies:

  1. A balloon has the right-of-way over any other category of aircraft;
  2. A glider has the right-of-way over an airship, airplane, rotorcraft, weight-shift control, or powered parachute; and
  3. An airship has the right-of-way over an airplane, rotorcraft, weight-shift control, or powered parachute.

An aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft has the right-of-way over all other engine driven aircraft.

When aircraft are approaching each other head-on, or nearly so, each pilot of each aircraft (regardless of category), shall alter course to the right. See Figure 5-3.

Figure 5-3. Aircraft approaching head-on

An aircraft being overtaken has the right-of-way. The overtaking aircraft shall alter course to the right to pass well clear. See Figure 5-4.

Figure 5-4. One aircraft overtaking another

When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of, or overtake another aircraft.

Parachutes

If any passengers are carried, the pilot of an aircraft may not intentionally exceed 60° of bank or 30° of pitch unless each occupant is wearing an approved parachute. However, this requirement does not apply when a certified flight instructor is giving instruction in spins or any other flight maneuver required by regulations for a rating.

If the parachute is of the chair type, it must have been packed by a certificated and appropriately-rated parachute rigger within the preceding 180 days.

Deviation from Air Traffic Control Instructions

An ATC clearance is authorization for an aircraft to proceed under specified traffic conditions within controlled airspace. When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no PIC may deviate from that clearance, except in an emergency, unless the pilot obtains an amended clearance. If a pilot does deviate from a clearance or ATC instruction during an emergency, they must notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible. If, in an emergency, a pilot is given priority over other aircraft by ATC, they may be requested to submit a detailed report even though no deviation from a rule occurred. The requested report shall be submitted within 48 hours to the chief of the ATC facility which granted the priority.

Minimum Safe Altitudes

No minimum altitude applies during takeoff or landing. During other phases of flight, however, the following minimum altitudes apply:

Anywhere—The pilot must maintain an altitude which, in the event of engine failure, will allow an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

Over congested areas—An altitude of at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft must be maintained over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement or over any open-air assembly of people.

Over other than congested areas—An altitude of 500 feet above the surface must be maintained except over open water or sparsely populated areas. In that case, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle or structure.

VFR Weather Minimums

Rules governing flight under visual flight rules (VFR) have been adopted to assist the pilot in meeting their responsibility to see and avoid other aircraft. See Figure 5-5.

Figure 5-5

In addition, when operating within the lateral boundaries of the surface area of Class B, C, D or E airspace designated for an airport, the ceiling must not be less than 1,000 feet. If the pilot intends to land, take off, or enter a traffic pattern within such airspace, the ground visibility must be at least 3 miles at that airport. If ground visibility is not reported, 3 miles flight visibility is required in the pattern.

Special VFR

When ATC issues a Special VFR clearance, an aircraft may be operated within the lateral boundaries of the surface area of Class B, C, D, or E airspace designated for an airport when the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet and/or the visibility is less than 3 miles.

Special VFR requires the aircraft to be operated clear of clouds with flight visibility of at least 1 statute mile.

For Special VFR operation between sunset and sunrise, the pilot must hold an Instrument Rating and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight.

Requests for Special VFR arrival or departure clearance should be directed to the airport traffic control tower if one is in operation.

VFR Cruising Altitudes

When operating an aircraft under VFR in level cruising flight more than 3,000 feet above the surface and below 18,000 feet MSL, a pilot is required to maintain an appropriate altitude in accordance with certain rules. This requirement is sometimes called the hemispherical cruising rule, and is based on magnetic course, not magnetic heading. See Figure 5-6.

Figure 5-6. VFR cruising altitudes

Transponder and ADS-B Requirements

A transponder is an airborne radar beacon transmitter-receiver that automatically receives signals from a ground-based radar beacon transmitter-receiver (interrogator). The transponder selectively replies (with a specific code) only to interrogations received on the mode to which it is set. Civil Mode A transponders have 4,096 discrete four-digit codes. This return signal is displayed on a radarscope on the ground, which a controller can then identify and pinpoint the position of each aircraft (target) under his or her control.

Additionally, some Mode A transponders are equipped with an automatic altitude reporting capability. This system converts aircraft altitude (in 100-foot increments) to coded digital information which is transmitted back to the interrogating radar system. Mode C transponders have this same altitude reporting capability, giving the controller information on the aircraft’s altitude as well as its position. The transponder “Ident” feature should not be activated unless requested by ATC. Activating it will show a blip on a radar screen allowing the controller to quickly locate your position. Mode C, which should be operated at all times, unless ATC requests otherwise, is also required for all flights above 10,000 feet MSL.

The transponder code for VFR flight is 1200. When changing transponder codes, avoid inadvertent selection of codes 7500 (hijack), 7600 (lost communications), 7700 (emergency), and 7777 (military interceptor operations).

If ATC advises that radar service is being terminated, the transponder should be set to code 1200 for VFR flight.

Aircraft operating in airspace previously requiring the use of a transponder are required to have an Automatic Dependent Surveillance–Broadcast (ADS-B) system that includes a certified position source capable of meeting requirements defined in 14 CFR §91.227. For altitudes below FL180, this system can be either a 1090-ES or Universal Access Transceiver (UAT).

ADS-B Out is a function of an aircraft’s avionics that periodically broadcasts the aircraft’s three-dimnesional position and velocity along with additional identifying information prescribed by §91.227. If the aircraft is equipped with ADS-B Out, it must be operated in transmit mode at all time. The following airspace requires the use of ADS-B Out:

Figure 5-7. Airspace where ADS-B is required

Aircraft that were not originally certificated with an electrical system, such as balloons and gliders, are exempt from operations requiring ADS-B Out in certain specified airspace:

Operations of aircraft with inoperable ADS-B equipment are allowed as long as an ATC authorized deviation has been approved by the ATC facility that has jurisdiction over the airspace. These requests can be made at any time.

Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT)

ELTs have been developed as a means of locating downed aircraft. Transmitting on 406 MHz, the ELT will operate continuously for at least 48 hours.

To prevent false alarms, the ELT should be tested only during the first 5 minutes after any hour and only for one to three sweeps. False alarms can also be minimized by monitoring 406 MHz prior to engine shutdown at the end of each flight.

Non-rechargeable batteries used in ELTs must be replaced when 50 percent of their useful life has expired, or when the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour.

Categories of Aircraft

The term category, when used with respect to the certification of aircraft, means a grouping of aircraft based upon intended use or operating limitations. Examples include normal, utility, aerobatic, restricted, experimental, transport, limited, and provisional categories.

Both restricted and experimental category aircraft are prohibited from carrying persons or property for compensation or hire. In addition, both categories are normally prohibited from flying over densely populated areas or in congested airways.

Formation Flight and Dropping Objects

Flying so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard is prohibited. If the intent is to fly formation, prior arrangement with the pilot-in-command of each aircraft is required. In any case, no person may operate an aircraft carrying passengers for hire in formation flight.

The PIC of an aircraft may not allow any object to be dropped while in flight unless reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface.

Speed Limits

The following maximum speed limits for aircraft have been established in the interest of safety:

  1. Below 10,000 feet MSL, the speed limit is 250 knots indicated air speed (KIAS). See Figure 5-8A.
  2. The speed limit within Class B airspace (Figure 5-8B) is also 250 KIAS.
  3. The maximum speed authorized in a VFR corridor through Class B airspace (Figure 5-8C) or in airspace underlying Class B airspace (Figure 5-8D) is 200 KIAS.
  4. In Class D airspace, aircraft are restricted to a maximum of 200 KIAS (Figure 5-8E).
  5. Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots.

Figure 5-8. Maximum speed limits

Airworthiness

Each aircraft is issued an airworthiness certificate, which remains valid as long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by regulations. This airworthiness certificate, along with the aircraft registration certificate, operating limitations, and weight and balance must be aboard the aircraft during flight. Remember:

The aircraft’s operating limitations may be found in the airplane flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.

Summarized below are important points in understanding the definition of light-sport aircraft and the privileges associated with the Sport Pilot Certificate:

Maintenance and Inspections

The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition, including compliance with Airworthiness Directives. The owner is also responsible for all records of maintenance, repairs, and alterations. (The pilot-in-command is responsible for determining that the aircraft is in an airworthy condition prior to flight.) The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a preflight inspection and a review of the maintenance records.

The holder of a pilot certificate is allowed (within certain limits) to perform preventive maintenance on any aircraft they own and operate. Preventive maintenance is limited to tasks such as replacing defective safety wire, servicing landing gear wheel bearings, replacing safety belts, and other tasks listed in 14 CFR Part 43, Appendix A. After preventive maintenance has been performed on an aircraft, the signature, certificate type and certificate number of the person approving the aircraft for return to service, and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.

An aircraft may not be operated unless, within the preceding 12 calendar months, it has had an annual inspection and has been approved for return to service. This will be indicated by the appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records. To determine the expiration date of the last annual inspection, refer to the aircraft maintenance records. For example, if the aircraft’s last annual inspection was performed on July 12, 2023, the next annual inspection will be due no later than midnight, July 31, 2024.

If an aircraft is used to carry passengers for hire or used for flight instruction for hire, it must have, in addition to the annual inspection, an inspection following each 100 hours of flight time. (An annual inspection may be substituted for the 100-hour inspection, but a 100-hour inspection may not be substituted for an annual inspection.) The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be done. The excess time should not be used in computing the next 100 hours of time in service. The next 100-hour inspection should be performed 100 hours after the previous inspection was due, not after the time the inspection was actually completed. For example: a 100-hour inspection was due at 3,302.5 hours on the hobbs meter. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3,309.5 hours. The next 100-hour inspection is due at 3,402.5 hours.

The transponder cannot be operated unless within the preceding 24 calendar months, it has been inspected and found satisfactory.

If an aircraft has been maintained, rebuilt, or altered in any manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics or operation in flight, no passengers may be carried until it has been flight tested by an appropriately rated pilot (with at least a Private Pilot Certificate) and approved for return to service.

Light-Sport Repair Certificates

Two additional repairman certificates are available for working on light-sport aircraft: the Maintenance and Inspection Ratings.

The Maintenance Rating allows repairmen to do maintenance, preventative maintenance, and alterations to E-LSA and S-LSA. The course is 120 hours (airplane category); 104 hours (weight-shift or powered parachute); 80 hours (glider or lighter-than-air). An A&P certificate counts towards these hour requirements for light-sport aircraft qualifications, but additional training on specific category of aircraft will be required.

The Inspection Rating allows E-LSA repairmen and owners the ability to perform the annual inspection on their own aircraft. This course is 16 hours on the specific aircraft category and class. The 100-hour inspection required for training and hire for all E-LSA and S-LSA must be done by an appropriately-rated A&P mechanic or an LSA repairman with a Maintenance Rating.

Light-sport aircraft FAA Designated Airworthiness Representatives (DAR) must attend a three-day FAA course to inspect and issue E-LSA and S-LSA airworthiness certificates.

S-LSA Maintenance

A certificated pilot (Sport Pilot rating or higher) can perform preventive maintenance as specified by the manufacturer (typically similar to 14 CFR Part 43, Appendix A) and return to service on his own aircraft with no Sport Pilot Repairman Certificate. However, the annual and 100-hour condition inspection must be completed by:

E-LSA Maintenance

No rating is required to perform maintenance on E-LSA. The annual condition inspection can be completed by:

ADs, ACs, and NOTAMs

Airworthiness Directives (ADs) identify unsafe aircraft conditions and prescribe regulatory actions (such as inspections or modifications) or limitations under which the affected aircraft may continue to be operated and are mandatory. Compliance with an applicable AD must be entered in the appropriate aircraft maintenance records. The owner or operator is responsible for ensuring ADs are complied with. Pilots may operate an aircraft not in compliance with an AD, if the AD allows for this.

In addition to ADs, light-sport aircraft must comply with manufacturers’ safety directives.

Advisory Circulars (ACs) are issued by the FAA to inform the aviation community in a systematic way of non-regulatory material of interest. In many cases, they are the result of a need to fully explain a particular subject (wake turbulence, for example). They are issued in a numbered-subject system corresponding to the subject areas of the Federal Aviation Regulations. Advisory Circulars (some free, others at cost) may be obtained by ordering from the Government Printing Office (GPO).

The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) is the official guide to basic flight information and ATC procedures. It is updated every 180 days and is available from the FAA website.

Notices to Air Missions (NOTAMs) provide the most current information available. They provide time-critical information on airports and changes that affect the national airspace system and are of concern to IFR operations. NOTAM information is classified into five categories: NOTAM (D) or distant, Flight Data Center (FDC) NOTAMs, pointer NOTAMs, Special Activity Airspace (SAA) NOTAMs, and military NOTAMs.

NOTAM (D)s are attached to hourly weather reports and are available at Flight Service Stations (AFSS/FSS). FDC NOTAMs are issued by the National Flight Data Center and contain regulatory information, such as temporary flight restrictions or an amendment to instrument approach procedures.

Pointer NOTAMs highlight or point out another NOTAM, such as an FDC or NOTAM (D). This type of NOTAM will assist pilots in cross-referencing important information that may not be found under an airport or NAVAID identifier. Military NOTAMs pertain to U.S. Air Force, Army, Marine, and Navy NAVAIDs/airports that are part of the NAS.

SAA NOTAMs are issued when Special Activity Airspace will be active outside the published schedule times and when required by the published schedule. Pilots and other users are still responsible to check published schedule times for Special Activity Airspace as well as any NOTAMs for that airspace.

NOTAM (D)s and FDC NOTAMs are contained in the Notices to Air Missions publication, which is issued every 28 days. Prior to any flight, pilots should check for any NOTAMs that could affect their intended flight.

An FDC NOTAM will be issued to designate a temporary flight restriction (TFR). The NOTAM will begin with the phrase “FLIGHT RESTRICTIONS” followed by the location of the temporary restriction, effective time period, area defined in statute miles, and altitudes affected. The NOTAM will also contain the FAA coordination facility and telephone number, the reason for the restriction, and any other information deemed appropriate. The pilot should check the NOTAMs as part of flight planning. Some of the purposes for establishing a temporary restriction are: protect persons and property in the air or on the surface from an existing or imminent hazard, provide a safe environment for the operation of disaster relief aircraft, prevent an unsafe congestion of sightseeing aircraft above an incident or event, which may generate a high degree of public interest, protect declared national disasters for humanitarian reasons in the State of Hawaii, protect the President, Vice President, or other public figures, provide a safe environment for space agency operations.

Accident Reporting Requirements

The National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) Part 830 contains rules pertaining to notification and reporting of aircraft accidents and incidents. It also addresses preservation of aircraft wreckage, mail, cargo, and records.

The term accident means “an occurrence in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage.”

Serious injury means any injury which: (1) requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from the date the injury was received; (2) results in a fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes, or nose); (3) causes severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle, or tendon damage; (4) involves any internal organ; or (5) involves second or third degree burns, or any burns affecting more than 5 percent of the body surface.

Substantial damage means damage or failure which adversely affects the structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft, and which would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component. The following are not considered substantial damage: engine failure, bent fairings or cowling, dented skin, small punctured holes in the skin or fabric, ground damage to rotor or propeller blades, and damage to landing gear, wheels, tires, flaps, engine accessories, brakes, or wingtips.

The term incident means “an occurrence other than an accident, which affects or could affect the safety of operations.”

Immediate notification of the NTSB is required when an aircraft accident occurs, and any of a specified list of incidents, which include:

  1. Inability of a flight crewmember to perform their duties due to illness or injury;
  2. Infight fire;
  3. An aircraft is overdue and believed to have been involved in an accident;
  4. Flight control system malfunction or failure; or
  5. When aircraft collide in flight or damage of more than $25,000 occurs to property other than the aircraft.

The operator of an aircraft involved in an accident or incident which requires notification of the NTSB is responsible for preserving the wreckage, mail, or cargo until the NTSB takes custody. These items may be moved to protect the wreckage from further damage.

The operator of an aircraft involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within 10 days. A report of an incident must be reported only upon request.

[02-2025]