1: Regulations

Applicable Regulations

The ATP Certificate

Flight Engineer Requirements

Flight Attendants

Experience and Training Requirements

Flight Crew Duty Time Limits

Dispatching and Flight Release

Fuel Requirements

Carriage of Passengers and Cargo

Emergency Equipment and Operations

National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB)

Applicable Regulations

Although FAR is used as the acronym for Federal Aviation Regulations, and can be seen throughout the regulations themselves and hundreds of other publications, the FAA is now actively discouraging its use. FAR also stands for Federal Acquisition Regulations. To eliminate any possible confusion, the FAA cites the Federal Aviation Regulations with reference to Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations. For example, “FAR Part 91.3” is referred to as “14 CFR Part 91 Section 3.”

Regulations change frequently; answer all questions in compliance with the most current regulations. Three different Federal Aviation Regulation Parts can apply to operations of aircraft covered by this chapter: Parts 91, 121, and 135. Part 91 encompasses the general operation and flight rules for all aircraft operating within the United States. Often the rules of Part 121 or 135 supplement or even supersede Part 91. When an airplane is not operated for compensation, only the Part 91 rules apply. On the FAA Knowledge Exam, assume Part 121 or 135 rules apply unless the question specifically states otherwise.

Part 121 applies to air carriers (airlines) engaged in interstate or overseas air transportation. Carriers which operate under Part 121 engage in common carriage. This means that they offer their services to the public and receive compensation for those services.

Part 121 operators are subdivided into five categories: commuter, on-demand, domestic, flag, and supplemental. Commuter operation means any scheduled operation that makes at least five round trips per week on at least one route between two or more points according to the published flight schedules and that is conducted with a rotorcraft or with an airplane or powered-lift aircraft that is not turbojet-powered, has 9 seats or fewer excluding crewmember seats, and has a maximum payload capacity of 7,500 pounds or less. On-demand operation means any operation for compensation or hire that carries passengers with a negotiated schedule or that uses a turbojet-powered airplane or powered-lift aircraft with 30 or fewer seats. Carriers authorized to conduct scheduled operations within the 48 contiguous states are domestic air carriers. Flag air carriers conduct scheduled operations inside and outside the 48 contiguous states. A supplemental carrier conducts its operations anywhere that its operations specifications permit but only on a nonscheduled basis. There is a sixth category, commercial operators of large aircraft, but they must comply with the rules covering supplemental carriers and the distinction is unimportant to this discussion.

Part 135 applies to air taxi operators. These operators are subdivided into two categories, commuter and on-demand operations.

Other parts of the regulations apply as well. Part 61 governs certification of pilots and flight instructors. Part 67 covers the issuing and standards for medical certificates. Part 1 contains definitions and abbreviations.

The ATP Certificate

All required flight crew of an air carrier flight must hold Airline Transport Pilot (ATP) Certificates with the appropriate type rating.

The pilot-in-command (PIC) of a large aircraft (gross weight over 12,500 pounds) or turbojet-powered airplane must have a type rating from that aircraft issued under Part 61.

Any type rating(s) on the pilot certificate of an applicant who successfully completes an ATP checkride will be included on the ATP Certificate with the privileges and limitations of the ATP Certificate, provided the applicant passes the checkride in the same category and class of aircraft for which the applicant holds the type rating(s). However, if a type rating for that category and class of aircraft on the superseded pilot certificate is limited to VFR, that limitation will be carried forward to the person’s ATP Certificate level.

An ATP certificate holder may give instruction in “air transportation service” in aircraft for which they hold category, class, and type ratings as an ATP. An ATP may not instruct more than 8 hours a day and not more than 36 hours in any 7-day period.

If a person’s pilot or medical certificate is lost or destroyed they can request a document from the FAA confirming that they were issued. This document can be used as a temporary replacement for the certificates for up to 60 days.

If a pilot certificate holder is convicted of driving under the influence of alcohol or drugs, the pilot must report that conviction to the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division within 60 days. Failure to do so is grounds for suspending or revoking any pilot or flight instructor certificates held by that person.

A crewmember is a person assigned to duty in the aircraft during flight. This includes pilots, flight engineers, navigators, flight attendants or anyone else assigned to duty in the airplane. A flight crewmember is a pilot, flight engineer or flight navigator assigned to duty in the aircraft during flight.

No one may serve as a pilot on an air carrier after that person has reached their 65th birthday. Note that this rule applies to any pilot position in the aircraft, but it does not apply to other flight crew positions such as flight engineer or navigator. This is known as the “age 65 rule.”

To exercise ATP privileges (such as acting as PIC of an air carrier flight), a pilot must hold a First Class Medical Certificate issued within the preceding 6 or 12 calendar months—depending on whether the applicant is over or under 40 years of age. To exercise commercial pilot privileges (e.g., flying a parachute jump operation) a pilot must hold either a First or Second Class Medical Certificate within the preceding 6 or 12 calendar months. For example, a First Class Medical Certificate issued in February to a pilot over 40 years of age would be good anytime in February for ATP privileges through August 31 and then good through the last day of February the next year for commercial pilot privileges.

A prerequisite for taking a practical test requires the applicant hold at least a current Third Class Medical Certificate, if a medical certificate is required. If the practical test is scheduled in an aircraft, the applicant is required to have the Third Class Medical Certificate. The applicant is not required to hold a medical certificate when taking a test or check for a certificate, rating, or authorization conducted in a flight simulator or flight training device.

Flight Engineer Requirements

Many air carrier aircraft have a flight engineer as a required flight crewmember. Air carrier aircraft for which a type certificate was issued before January 2, 1964, with a maximum takeoff weight of more than 80,000 pounds, require a flight engineer with a current certificate to operate. On aircraft types certified after January 1, 1964, the aircraft’s type certification requirements determine whether or not a flight engineer is required.

On each flight that requires a flight engineer, at least one other member of the flight crew must be qualified to provide emergency performance of the flight engineer’s duties if the flight engineer becomes ill or incapacitated. Either pilot can fulfill the function and they need not hold a Flight Engineer Certificate to be qualified.

Flight Attendants

One or more flight attendants are required on each passenger carrying airplane operating under Part 121 that has more than nine passenger seats. The number of flight attendants is determined by the number of installed passenger seats—not by the actual number of passengers on board.

One flight attendant is required on airplanes that can seat 10 through 50 passengers. Two flight attendants are required on airplanes having a seating capacity of 51 through 100 seats. After that, an additional flight attendant is required for each unit (or partial unit) of 50 seats above 100. For example, three flight attendants are required on airplanes having 101 through 150 seats, and four flight attendants must be on aircraft with 151 through 200 seats.

Experience and Training Requirements

For these definitions of training, aircraft are divided into two groups: Group I aircraft are propeller driven, Group II are turbojet aircraft. Initial training is the training required for crewmembers and dispatchers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity (i.e., flight engineer, copilot, pilot-in-command) on another aircraft of the same group. Transition training is the training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have qualified and served in the same capacity on another aircraft of the same group. Upgrade training is the training required for crewmembers who have qualified and served as second-in-command (SIC) or flight engineer on a particular airplane type (e.g., Boeing 727) before they can serve as PIC or SIC, respectively, on that airplane. Differences training is the training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have qualified and served on a particular type of airplane before they can serve in the same capacity on a variation of that airplane. For example, a crewmember who is qualified on a Boeing 727-100 would need differences training to serve on a Boeing 727-200.

The PIC of an air carrier flight must have had a proficiency check within the preceding 12 calendar months. In addition, within the preceding 6 calendar months the PIC must have either passed a proficiency check or completed an approved simulator training course. Pilots other than the PIC must have either passed a proficiency check or completed line oriented flight training within the last 24 calendar months. In addition, the copilot must have had a proficiency check or any other kind of simulator training within the last 12 calendar months.

The pilot-in-command of an air carrier flight must have completed a line check in one of the aircraft types they are qualified to fly within the preceding 12 calendar months. If the PIC is qualified in more than one type of aircraft, a line check in any of them satisfies this requirement.

Recurrent training and checkrides are always due during a calendar month rather than by a certain date. In addition, if recurrent training or a check is taken during, before, or after the month, it is considered to have been taken during the month it was due. For example, if a crewmember had a check due in December, they could take it November, December, or January and it would be considered as having been done in December. Also, January would be considered a grace month in that the crewmember could fly, even though they had technically gone beyond the due date of the check.

Every pilot on an air carrier flight must have made at least three takeoffs and landings in the type of airplane flown within the preceding 90 days. If a pilot doesn’t meet these requirements, they must re-establish the recency of experience by making three takeoffs and three landings under the supervision of a check airman. These takeoffs and landings must meet the following:

Air Carriers’ Operations Specifications are usually written so that the instrument experience requirements of 14 CFR Part 61 do not apply to their pilots. This test asks four questions on the Part 61 requirements: 9333, 9339, 9342, 9344.

The PIC of an airplane who has less than 100 hours in the aircraft type has higher than published landing minimums at the destination airport. Such a PIC must add 100 feet to the published DH or MDA and add 1/2-mile (or 2,400 feet RVR) to the required visibility. If a flight diverts to an alternate airport, the PIC may use the published minimums for the approach there, but in no event may the landing minimums be less than 300 and 1. If a pilot has at least 100 hours PIC in another aircraft under Part 121 operations, they may reduce the current restriction by 1 hour for each landing, up to 50 hours maximum.

A Category II (CAT II) instrument approach is an ILS approach with a published minimum visibility of less than 1,800 RVR but equal to or greater than 1,200 RVR. Most CAT II approaches have published decision heights of 150 and 100 feet HAT. To fly a published CAT II approach, the aircraft must meet certain equipment and maintenance requirements and the pilots must qualify for and pass a CAT II checkride. To be eligible for the checkride, the pilot must meet all recent experience requirements of Part 61 and have certain recent experience with regard to ILS approaches. Within the previous 6 months, the pilot must have made at least six ILS approaches down to minimums (CAT I minimums are OK). At least three of the approaches must have been hand flown. The other three may have been flown using an approach coupler. When issued an original CAT II certification, a pilot is restricted to a DH of 150 feet and a minimum RVR of 1,600. This restriction is lifted when the pilot logs three CAT II approaches to the 150-foot DH within the previous 6 months.

An aircraft dispatcher must have spent at least 5 hours observing flight deck operations within the preceding 12 calendar months. The dispatcher must have done this for at least one of the types for each group they intend to dispatch.

Flight Crew Duty Time Limits

Familiarize yourself with 14 CFR Part 117 to understand flight crew duty time limits. The limitations of Part 117 apply to all flying by flightcrew members on behalf of any certificate holder or Part 91 Subpart K program manager during the applicable periods. Each flightcrew member must report for any flight duty period rested and prepared to perform his or her assigned duties. Each certificate holder must develop and implement an education and awareness training program that is approved by the Administrator. This program must provide the training to all employees of the certificate holder who are responsible for administering the provisions of Part 117, including flightcrew members, dispatchers, individuals directly involved in the scheduling of flightcrew members or in operational control, and any employee providing direct management oversight of these areas.

A person cannot be assigned to any ground or flight duties during required rest periods. The term deadhead is used to describe the transportation of crewmembers by the air carrier to or from their flight assignments when that transportation is not local in character. Time spent in deadhead air transportation cannot be considered as part of a required rest period.

Other new terms and definitions associated with Part 117 to be aware of are as follows:

Airport/standby reserve means a defined duty period during which a flightcrew member is required by a certificate holder to be at an airport for a possible assignment. For airport/standby reserve, all time spent in a reserve status is part of the flightcrew member’s flight duty period.

Augmented and unaugmented operations. An unaugmented flight contains the minimum number of flightcrew members necessary to safely pilot an aircraft. An augmented flight contains additional flightcrew members and at least one onboard rest facility, which allows flightcrew members to work in shifts and sleep during the flight.

Calendar day means a 24-hour period from 0000 through 2359 using Coordinated Universal Time or local time.

Fatigue means a physiological state of reduced mental or physical performance capability resulting from lack of sleep or increased physical activity, which can reduce a flightcrew member’s alertness and ability to safely operate an aircraft or perform safety-related duties.

Physiological night’s rest means 10 hours of rest that encompasses the hours of 0100 and 0700 at the flightcrew member’s home base, unless the individual has acclimated to a different theater. If the flightcrew member has acclimated to a different theater, the rest must encompass the hours of 0100 and 0700 at the acclimated location.

Rest period means a continuous period determined prospectively during which the flightcrew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder, including freedom from present responsibility for work should the occasion arise.

Short-call reserve means a period of time in which a flightcrew member is assigned to a reserve availability period. For short-call reserve, the reserve availability period may not exceed 14 hours.

Theater means a geographical area in which the distance between the flightcrew member’s flight duty period departure point and arrival point differs by no more than 60° longitude. The applicable flight duty period is based on the local time at the theater in which the flightcrew member was last acclimated.

Unforeseen operational circumstance means an unplanned event of insufficient duration to allow for adjustments to schedules, including unforecast weather, equipment malfunction, or air traffic delay that is not reasonably expected. For augmented and unaugmented operations, if unforeseen operational circumstances arise prior to takeoff, the pilot-in-command and the certificate holder may extend the maximum flight duty period permitted up to 2 hours. For augmented and unaugmented operations, if unforeseen operational circumstances arise after takeoff, the pilot-in-command and the certificate holder may extend maximum flight duty periods to the extent necessary to safely land the aircraft at the next destination airport or alternate airport, as appropriate.

Window of circadian low means a period of maximum sleepiness that occurs between 0200 and 0559 during a physiological night’s rest. No certificate holder may schedule and no flightcrew member may accept more than three consecutive flight duty periods that infringe upon the window of circadian low.

Flight Duty Periods

No certificate holder may schedule, and no flightcrew member may accept an assignment if the flightcrew member’s total flight duty period (FDP) will exceed 60 flight duty hours in any 168 consecutive hours. Before beginning any reserve or flight duty period, a flightcrew member must be given at least 30 consecutive hours free from all duty within the past 168 consecutive-hour period.

No certificate holder may schedule, and no flightcrew member may accept, an assignment if the flightcrew member’s total flight duty period will exceed 190 FDP hours in any 672 consecutive hours.

No certificate holder may schedule, and no flightcrew member may accept, an assignment for any reserve or flight duty period unless the flightcrew member is given a rest period of at least 10 consecutive hours immediately before beginning the reserve or FDP measured from the time the flightcrew member is released from duty. The 10-hour rest period must provide the flightcrew member with a minimum of 8 uninterrupted hours of sleep opportunity. If a flightcrew member determines that this rest period will not provide 8 uninterrupted hours of sleep opportunity, he or she must notify the certificate holder. The flightcrew member cannot report for the assigned flight duty period until he or she receives this specified rest period.

For an unaugmented operation only, if a flightcrew member is provided with a rest opportunity (an opportunity to sleep) in a suitable accommodation during his or her flight duty period, the time that the flightcrew member spends there is not part of his or her FDP if the time spent in that accommodation is at least 3 hours, measured from the time that the flightcrew member arrives there.

A Part 117 excerpt will be available for your reference during the FAA test. You will not be required to memorize the tables; however, you will need to know which table to use—that is, which one is applicable to the question being asked.

The maximum flight time for unaugmented operations is as follows (14 CFR §117.11 Table A):

Time of report (acclimated)

Maximum flight time (hours)

0000-0459

8

0500-1959

9

2000-2359

8

The maximum flight duty period (hours) for lineholders is based on the number of flight segments and the scheduled time of start (14 CFR §117.13 Table B):

Scheduled
time of start
(acclimated time)

Maximum flight duty period (hours) for lineholders
based on number of flight segments

1

2

3

4

5

6

7+

0000-0359

9

9

9

9

9

9

9

0400-0459

10

10

10

10

9

9

9

0500-0559

12

12

12

12

11.5

11

10.5

0600-0659

13

13

12

12

11.5

11

10.5

0700-1159

14

14

13

13

12.5

12

11.5

1200-1259

13

13

13

13

12.5

12

11.5

1300-1659

12

12

12

12

11.5

11

10.5

1700-2159

12

12

11

11

10

9

9

2200-2259

11

11

10

10

9

9

9

2300-2359

10

10

10

9

9

9

9

If the flightcrew member is not acclimated, the maximum flight duty period in Table C of Part 117 is reduced by 30 minutes (14 CFR Part 117 Table C):

Scheduled time of start (acclimated time)

Maximum flight duty period (hours) based on rest facility and number of pilots

Class 1 rest facility

Class 2 rest facility

Class 3 rest facility

3 pilots

4 pilots

3 pilots

4 pilots

3 pilots

4 pilots

0000-0559

15

17

14

15.5

13

13.5

0600-0659

16

18.5

15

16.5

14

14.5

0700-1259

17

19

16.5

18

15

15.5

1300-1659

16

18.5

15

16.5

14

14.5

1700-2359

15

17

14

15.5

13

13.5

Dispatching and Flight Release

Operational control, with respect to a flight, is the exercise of authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.

The air carrier or commercial operator is responsible for operational control. The pilot-in-command and the director of operations are jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of flight in compliance with regulations and the company’s operations specifications. The pilot-in-command is responsible for the preflight planning and the operation of the flight.

Each flag and domestic flight must have a dispatch release on board. The dispatch release can be in any form but must contain the following information:

The aircraft dispatcher must provide the pilot-in-command with all available current reports or information on airport conditions and irregularities of navigation facilities that may affect the safety of flight. The aircraft dispatcher must provide the pilot-in-command with all available weather reports and forecasts of weather phenomena that may affect the safety of flight including adverse weather. The aircraft dispatcher must update this information during a flight.

When a domestic flight lands at an intermediate airport named in its original dispatch release and departs again within 1 hour, it does not need a new dispatch release. If it remains on the ground for more than 1 hour, a redispatch release must be issued.

When a flag flight lands at an intermediate airport named in its original dispatch release and departs again within 6 hours, it does not need a new dispatch release. If it remains on the ground for more than 6 hours, a redispatch is required.

The pilot-in-command of a flight shall carry in the airplane to its destination:

The air carrier must keep copies of these documents for at least 3 months.

Each supplemental carrier or commercial operator flight must have a flight release on board. The flight release can be in any form but must contain the following information:

Before beginning a flight, the pilot-in-command must obtain all available current reports or information on airport conditions and irregularities of navigation facilities that may affect the safety of the flight. During a flight, the pilot-in-command must obtain any additional available information of meteorological conditions and irregularities of facilities and services that may affect the safety of the flight.

A provisional airport is defined as an airport approved by the Administrator for use by a certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport used by the certificate holder is not available. A person who is not authorized to conduct direct air carrier operations, but is authorized by the Administrator to conduct operations as a U.S. commercial operator, will be issued an Operating Certificate. Each certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or commuter operations must obtain operations specifications containing, among many other provisions, the kinds of operations authorized.

Extended-range twin-engine operations (ETOPS) is a rating accompanied by a time limit (such as 180-minute ETOPS) that allows twin-engine civil transport aircraft to fly over oceans and deserts, provided that the aircraft is never farther than the specified time limit away from a suitable airfield. An ETOPS entry point is the first point on an ETOPS route at which the airplane is farther than a distance of 60 minutes flying time, with one engine inoperative, from an emergency or diversion airport that is adequate for an airplane with two engines.

When filing an alternate using the 180-minute ETOPS rule, the alternate airport must have rescue and fire fighting services (RFFS) that meet ICAO Category 4 standard or higher. If filing an alternate using the beyond-180-minute ETOPS rule, the alternate must have RFFS that meet the ICAO Category 4 standard or higher, and the aircraft must remain within the ETOPS authorized diversion time from an adequate airport that has RFFS equal to ICAO Category 7 or higher.

Fuel Requirements

All domestic flights must have enough fuel to:

  1. Fly to the airport to which the flight was dispatched;
  2. Thereafter, fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport (if an alternate is required); and
  3. Thereafter, fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.

The fuel required for a flag flight landing in the 48 contiguous states or the District of Columbia is the same as for domestic flights. The fuel requirements for reciprocating-powered supplemental or commercial operations landing in the contiguous 48 states is the same as for domestic operations.

If an alternate is not required or the flight is being made to a remote airport where no alternate is available, the fuel requirements are:

  1. Enough fuel to fly to the destination; and
  2. Fly for two hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

A turbojet supplemental flight (with an alternate available) landing outside the 48 contiguous states must have fuel to:

  1. Fly to the destination;
  2. Fly 10% of the total time required to fly to the destination, then
  3. Fly to the alternate; and
  4. Fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 feet above the alternate.

Propeller driven flag flights must have enough fuel to:

  1. Fly to the airport to which the flight was dispatched;
  2. Thereafter, fly to and land at the most distant alternate; and
  3. Thereafter, fly for 30 minutes plus 15% of the total flying time to the destination and the alternate at normal cruising fuel consumption, or fly for 90 minutes, whichever is less.

If an alternate is not required or the flight is being made to a remote airport where no alternate is available, the fuel requirements for reciprocating engine powered flights are:

  1. Enough fuel to fly to the destination, and then;
  2. Fly for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

Carriage of Passengers and Cargo

Before takeoff all the passengers must be briefed on:

After the seatbelt sign has been turned off in flight, the passengers must be briefed to keep their seatbelts fastened while seated. In addition to the required briefings, passengers must be provided with printed cards that contain diagrams of and methods of operating the emergency exits and the use of other emergency equipment. Before flight is conducted above FL250, a crewmember must instruct the passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization and must point out to them the location and demonstrate the use of the oxygen dispensing equipment.

Each passenger two years old and older must have their own seat or berth and approved seatbelt. During takeoff and landing, all passengers must be in their seat with their seatbelts fastened. A child under two may be held by an adult. During the enroute portion of a flight, two passengers may share a seatbelt while seated in a multiple lounge or divan seat.

There are certain persons who have to be admitted to the flight deck in flight (such as crewmembers, FAA inspectors, etc.) and certain others who may be admitted (e.g., deadheading crew), but the pilot-in-command has emergency authority to exclude any person from the flight deck in the interest of safety. In what is commonly known as the sterile flight deck rule, crewmembers are required to refrain from nonessential activities during critical phases of flight. As defined in the regulation, critical phases of flight are all ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, and landing, and all other flight operations below 10,000 feet except cruise flight. Nonessential activities include such activities as eating, reading a newspaper, or chatting.

Law enforcement officers may carry firearms on board an air carrier flight if their duties so require. Except in an emergency, the carrier should be given at least one hour prior notice that a person carrying a deadly weapon is going to be on the flight. If a passenger is carrying a firearm in their checked baggage, the weapon must be unloaded and the bag locked. The passenger must retain the key to the bag. The bag must be stowed in a portion of the aircraft that is inaccessible to both the passenger and to crewmembers in flight.

Prisoners are sometimes carried on air carrier flights. The prisoners are always escorted and no more than one prisoner who is classified as “maximum risk” can be allowed on the aircraft. Certain rules apply to the carriage of prisoners. These include:

If a person who appears to be intoxicated creates a disturbance on a flight, a report of the incident must be made to the Administrator within 5 days.

Certain passengers may be carried on an all-cargo flight without the carrier having to comply with all the passenger-carrying rules. Passengers carried on an all-cargo flight must have a seat with an approved seatbelt in the cargo compartment. They must have access to the pilot compartment or to an exit. The pilot-in-command must be able to notify them when they must have their seatbelt fastened and when smoking is prohibited. They must receive an emergency briefing from a crewmember prior to takeoff. The pilot-in-command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the flight crew compartment.

Cargo (including carry-on baggage) may be carried in the passenger compartment of an aircraft if certain conditions are met. If the cargo is carried in an approved cargo bin, it can be located anywhere in the passenger compartment. The bin:

If the cargo is not placed in an approved cargo bin it must be located aft of a bulkhead or divider (i.e., not aft of a passenger) and it must meet certain other requirements. These include:

Each person who has duties concerning the handling or carriage of dangerous articles or magnetized materials must have completed a training course within the preceding 12 calendar months.

Emergency Equipment and Operations

Certain emergency equipment must be carried on every air carrier airplane. This equipment includes fire extinguishers, megaphones, first aid kits, and a crash axe. All this equipment must:

Only one crash axe is required on the airplane and must be carried on the flight deck. At least one hand fire extinguisher must be carried on the flight deck. The number of extinguishers carried in the cabin is determined by the number of installed passenger seats. The following table applies.

Minimum Number of Hand Fire Extinguishers in the Passenger Cabin

Passenger Seating Capacity

Extinguishers Required

6 through 30

1

31 through 60

2

61 through 200

3

201 through 300

4

301 through 400

5

401 through 500

6

501 through 600

7

601 or more

8

The number of megaphones carried on the airplane is determined by the number of installed passenger seats. On airplanes with a seating capacity of 60 through 99 passengers, one megaphone must be carried in the most rearward location in the passenger cabin that is readily accessible to a normal flight attendant seat. On airplanes with a seating capacity of 100 or more seats, one megaphone must be carried at the rear of the cabin and another megaphone must be carried at the front of the cabin.

Passenger carrying airplanes must have an emergency exit light system. This system must be operable manually from both the flight crew station and from a point in the passenger compartment readily accessible to a flight attendant. When the system is armed it must come on automatically with the interruption of the airplane’s normal electrical power. The exit lights must be armed or turned on during taxiing, takeoff, and landing. Every emergency exit (other than an over wing exit) that is more than 6 feet from the ground must have a means of assisting occupants to the ground in the event of an emergency evacuation. The most common means of complying with this requirement is an inflatable slide that deploys automatically when the door is opened. If such an automatic escape slide is installed, it must be armed during taxi, takeoff and landing. If any required emergency exit for passengers is located in other than the passenger compartment (such as the flight deck), the door separating the compartments must be latched open during takeoff and landing.

A public address system and a separate crewmember interphone system must be installed on all airplanes with a seating capacity of more than 19 seats.

Each crewmember on a flight must have a flashlight in good working order readily available.

When operating at flight altitudes above 10,000 feet there must be enough oxygen for all crewmembers for the entire flight at those altitudes, and in no event less than a 2-hour supply.

When operating at flight altitudes above FL250 each flight crewmember on flight deck duty must have an oxygen mask within immediate reach, so designed that it can be rapidly placed on his or her face. This is commonly referred to as a quick-donning oxygen mask and the requirements state the user must be able to put on the mask with one hand and within 5 seconds.

Above FL410, one pilot must wear their mask at all times. If, while operating above FL410, one pilot leaves their station, the other pilot must put on their oxygen mask. Notice that the rule applies only to the pilots. Above FL250 the flight engineer need only have a quick-donning mask readily available. Note: For Part 135 operations one pilot must wear the oxygen mask above FL350.

The oxygen requirements for passengers vary with the type of aircraft, but oxygen must be provided to all passengers for the entire time the cabin altitude is above 15,000 feet.

Passengers on turbine powered airplanes must be supplied oxygen according to the following schedule.

The amount of oxygen carried for passengers in the event of loss of pressurization varies depending on the ability of the airplane to make an emergency descent. If the aircraft can make a descent to 14,000 feet within 4 minutes, it may carry less oxygen than would otherwise be required.

A certain amount of first aid oxygen must be carried for passengers on flights that operate above FL250. The amount of oxygen is determined by the actual number of passengers but in no case may there be less than 2 oxygen dispensing units.

On extended over-water flights (more than 50 NM from the shoreline) the airplane must have a life preserver for each occupant of the aircraft, and enough life rafts to accommodate all the occupants. This equipment must be easily accessible in the event of a ditching.

When flag or supplemental carriers or commercial operators fly over uninhabited terrain, the following survival equipment must be carried on the airplane:

In an emergency situation that requires immediate decision and action, the pilot-in-command may take any action that he/she considers necessary under the circumstances. In such a case the PIC may deviate from prescribed procedures and methods, weather minimums and regulations to the extent required in the interest of safety. In an emergency situation arising during flight that requires immediate decision and action by an aircraft dispatcher, the dispatcher must advise the pilot-in-command of the emergency, shall ascertain the decision of the pilot-in-command and shall have that decision recorded. If the dispatcher cannot communicate with the pilot, the dispatcher shall declare an emergency and take any action he or she considers necessary under the circumstances.

Each certificate holder (airline) must, for each type and model of airplane, assign to each category of crewmember, as appropriate, the necessary functions to be performed in an emergency or in a situation requiring emergency evacuation. The certificate holder must describe those duties in its manual.

Crewmembers must receive emergency training annually on several subjects. Besides the training they must perform emergency drills in:

Crewmembers who serve above 25,000 feet must receive instruction in hypoxia, respiration, and decompression. Crewmembers must actually operate certain emergency equipment in their recurrent training at least once every 24 months.

The pilot-in-command must make a report to the appropriate ground radio station of the stoppage of an engine’s rotation in flight (due either to failure or intentional shutdown) as soon as practicable and must keep that station informed of the progress of the flight. As a general rule, when an engine fails or is shutdown, the pilot-in-command must land the aircraft at the nearest suitable airport, time-wise, at which a safe landing can be made. There is an exception to the rule for airplanes with 3 or more engines. If only 1 engine has failed, the pilot-in-command may elect to continue to a more distant airport (possibly the original destination) if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.

The certificate holder must provide a flight deck check procedure (checklist) for each type of aircraft it operates. The procedures must include each item necessary for flight crewmembers to check for safety before starting engines, taking-off or landing, and in engine and systems emergencies. The procedures must be designed so that a flight crewmember will not need to rely on memory for items to be checked. The flight crew must use the approved check procedure.

Whenever a pilot-in-command or dispatcher exercises emergency authority, they shall keep the appropriate ATC facility and dispatch centers fully informed of the progress of the flight. The person declaring the emergency shall send a written report of any deviation through the air carrier’s operations manager to the Administrator. A dispatcher must send this report within 10 days after the date of the emergency. A pilot-in-command must send the report within 10 days after returning to their home base.

When ATC gives priority to an aircraft in an emergency, the manager of the ATC facility involved may ask the pilot-in-command to submit a report. If asked, the pilot-in-command must submit a detailed written report to the ATC facility manager within 48 hours. This is required whether or not there was a deviation from regulations.

National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB)

An aircraft accident is an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft that takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and the time all such persons have disembarked in which any person suffers death or serious injury or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage.

A serious injury is any injury that:

Substantial damage is damage or failure that adversely affects the structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft and that would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component. Damage not considered substantial for accident reporting purposes are as follows: engine failure or damage limited to an engine if only one engine fails or is damaged, bent fairings or cowling, dented skin, small punctured holes in the skin or fabric, ground damage to rotor or propeller blades, and damage to the landing gear, wheels, tires, flaps, engine accessories, brakes, or wing tips.

The operator of an aircraft must immediately notify the nearest NTSB field office if any of the following occur:

The operator of an aircraft must submit a written report of an aircraft accident within 10 days of the accident. The operator of an overdue aircraft must submit a written report within 7 days if the aircraft is still missing. The operator of an aircraft that was involved in an incident requiring immediate notification of the NTSB must submit a written report of the incident only if requested to do so by the NTSB.

[10-2024]